Buck up fellows!!
Seems like ye all got it wrong..or is it me??
Let me give you a few hints...

In the inelastic collision, the ball loses all the velocity normal to the surface. (in the diagram v2 is lost) Coz thats the defn. Then it moves left horizontally (because of v1) till...Well i'll leave the 'till' to you...

Anyways the answer was L/32. Giving you a day more bfore the solution...

7 comments:

  1. Kunal MainiFebruary 19, 2010 at 6:51 PM

    It should have been mentioned before that the collision is 'perfectly' inelastic.

    ReplyDelete
  2. AnujFebruary 19, 2010 at 6:56 PM

    You right Kunal..But maybe that's why i put it in Bold.
    Try the next question...its good.
    I'll be posting the origin and importance of the first question soon.

    ReplyDelete
  3. DigvijayFebruary 19, 2010 at 7:04 PM

    This comment has been removed by the author.

    ReplyDelete
  4. DigvijayFebruary 19, 2010 at 7:33 PM

    im getting 9L/32

    ReplyDelete
  5. ♥◘○µ╦┬░Γ╪╬└↑φΦ╫╛◙«½╣↔⌐☺♠♦♣◘○February 19, 2010 at 7:33 PM

    This comment has been removed by the author.

    ReplyDelete
  6. ♥◘○µ╦┬░Γ╪╬└↑φΦ╫╛◙«½╣↔⌐☺♠♦♣◘○February 19, 2010 at 7:36 PM

    This comment has been removed by a blog administrator.

    ReplyDelete
  7. DigvijayFebruary 19, 2010 at 8:07 PM

    nai nai..anuj uv done it correct yaar..maine sine cosine ulte kar diye the..its l/32 only

    ReplyDelete

Subscribe to: Post Comments (Atom)