

In the first diagram, note that though v1CosA=v2, same constraint does not hold for accn.
In the second diagram, v1(1-CosA)+v2=0 but not a1(1-CosA)+a2=0...
I wanted you to observe that you can relate the velocities by taking the tensions..
Try it: in each question, observe the tension (in the dirn. of motion) and the coefficients in the velocity constraints...
SEE MY COMMENTS IN THE PREVIOUS PROBLEM SIR
ReplyDeletewell that was nice...:)
ReplyDeletethnx especially for this one!!
yes, i saw the diagram..i can't make anything from it..you have not shown overlapping of the loops ie. how the wire is structured..
ReplyDeletewithout that how can one find the B??
and, you can consult your teachers regarding these..
i operate this blog so you can have something that you won't have in class..
you can see that each question here can be generalized to several more...while the problem you uploaded is a specific case of finding the magnetic field...
i can't really help you there...sorry for being harsh yaar...but that's the way things are.
OK SIR,I ONLY LISTEN TO YOUR PROBLEMS IN THIS BLOG
ReplyDeleteI USE Re = 6.378x10^6 m and g = 9.81 m/s^2
ReplyDeletecool yaar...i'll verify your answer soon
ReplyDeletePLEASE REPLY SIR,SO THAT IF MY ANSWER IS WRONG I RETRY IT..........
ReplyDeleteamritpal, what was the value of the acceleration that you took???
ReplyDeleteit would be easier for me to verify...
This comment has been removed by the author.
ReplyDeleteThis comment has been removed by the author.
ReplyDeletethen your answer is probably right...
ReplyDeletei remove my post for secrecy...
ReplyDelete